Where did the concept of dating come from

" no less a figure than Larry Burkett (Crown Financial) used to respond by asking, "Do you want God to bless you on your gross or net?

" There is not an exact prescription for tithing in Scripture (unlike, say, in Islam).

Clearly this is not what it meant in the Old Testament, and I don't see anything in the New Testament to indicate that the term was redefined by Jesus or the Apostles.

To clarify, I am not asking this is a good interpretation (or application, for that matter).

Rather, the principle is derived from Malachi , in which God says: "Bring the whole tithe into the storehouse, that there may be food in my house.

Test me in this," says the LORD Almighty, "and see if I will not throw open the floodgates of heaven and pour out so much blessing that you will not have room enough for it." Thank you for your interest in this question.

Clearly these things have application today; I am not challenging the idea of providing for ministers and needy people with cheerfulness and generosity.

My question is: When did the Church begin to understand "tithing" as "giving 10% of your gross income to the Church"?

Would you like to answer one of these unanswered questions instead?

I am also not looking for unsupported claims about how "it has always been understood this way, even by Jesus and the Apostles." My question is about The Jewish Historian Alfred Edersheim seems to have done a fair bit of research on this subject.

Basically, the subject is far more complex than a simple 10%, and would usually have amounted to more under Old Testament law. 26:2–11, where the ceremonial to be observed in the Sanctuary is also described.

(although in some cases silver may have been in use).

It is therefore somewhat natural that a tradition under the Old Testament of paying a generic 10% for the tithe on 'all that one earned' is understandable (Ref.

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